“The Gospel does not abrogate God’s law, but it makes men love it with all of their hearts.” – J. Gresham Machen
If Jesus is (right now) and was (during His earthly ministry) a perfect lover of the law of God, a lover of the commandments of God (and He is, as He is the One who gave the law to Moses on the mountain, since it is a very reflection of His character and nature), just as the same love of God’s laws and rules is laid out in multiple places in the Psalms, but very clearly and repeatedly in Psalm 119, for example; and if Jesus is speaking to the churches in the early church in the beginning of Revelation banning them from “sexual immorality,” because it does indeed displease Him; does it not follow that just because a particular sin or issue isn’t spoken of directly in the words of Jesus, recorded in the gospels, that there is enough evidence to surmise that yes, indeed, Jesus was opposed to every form of sexuality that doesn’t conform to the pattern instated in the very beginning, man and woman in covenant marriage, in Genesis, re-iterated by none other than Jesus Himself?
It is fallacious to say that just because Jesus didn’t speak directly to a particular, outlined sin that we get a free pass to do as we please. In addition, it defies the spirit of the law itself, which is to say, instead of asking, “How far can we go? Or what can we get away with?” that we should be asking, “What would please God? What has God told us concerning what pleases Him?” And in this sense, is this not seeking after the very glory of Christ Himself, to please Him in our actions? Not so that we can be accepted in His presence, as He’s already accomplished this in our place in His life, death and resurrection, but precisely because of that truth?
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